Write two code fragments, which we will call s_zero and s_one.

Program (l, n) consists of l copies of s_zero and s_one corresponding with the digits of n in binary, padded with s_zero on the left.

For example, if s_zero = foo and s_one = bar then
Program (4, 0) = foofoofoofoo
Program (4, 1) = foofoofoobar
Program (4, 2) = foofoobarfoo

Program (l, n) must print the source of Program (l, (n + 1) mod (2^l)) to standard out. In the example above, foobarfoofoo must print foobarfoobar when executed.

Your score is the sum of the lengths of fragments s_zero and s_one

  • \$\begingroup\$ Near duplicate to codegolf.stackexchange.com/questions/35974/… - computation done by quining program with 2 different code blocks. \$\endgroup\$ – feersum Jan 26 '15 at 3:53
  • \$\begingroup\$ Can the program read its own source code? \$\endgroup\$ – Doorknob Jan 26 '15 at 3:53
  • 2
    \$\begingroup\$ @feersum I disagree. This one is a lot easier, in particular, you don't need to be able to determine line breaks. Furthermore, I think the task does make a difference, otherwise every generalised quine challenge would be a dupe of the basic quine challenge. \$\endgroup\$ – Martin Ender Jan 26 '15 at 7:29
  • \$\begingroup\$ The advantage of the simpler task is that it encourages competition to create the shockingly short answers seen so far- I hope that justifies this challenge as different! \$\endgroup\$ – QuadmasterXLII Jan 26 '15 at 14:48
  • 1
    \$\begingroup\$ Probably worth noting that s_zero and s_one have to be different. Otherwise I have many solutions with 2*n scores. \$\endgroup\$ – randomra Feb 15 '15 at 11:51

CJam, 29 + 29 = 58 bytes

The 0 code:


The 1 code:



0                       " Push the current bit. ";
{"_~"                   " The basic quine structure. ";
    ]                   " Make an array of the current bit, the function and _~.
                          That is the code fragment itself. ";
    ]                   " Make an array of all code fragments in the stack. ";
    z(                  " Extract the array of the bits. ";
    3\+2b(2b2>          " Convert from base 2, decrease by one and convert back,
                          keeping the length. ";
    a\+z                " Put the bits back to the original position. ";
    ~                   " Dump the array of code fragments back into the stack. ";
    [                   " Mark the beginning position of the array of the next code fragment. ";
  • 2
    \$\begingroup\$ every single time ... \$\endgroup\$ – Optimizer Jan 26 '15 at 10:47

CJam, 47 + 47 = 94 bytes

The 0 code:


The 1 code:


Excuse the expletive.

I'm sure I can still shave off a few bytes there. I'll add an explanation once I decide that I can't be bothered to golf it any further.

Test it here.


CJam, 45 + 45 = 90 bytes

The 0 code:


The 1 code:


Explanation soon.

Try it online here


GolfScript, 37 + 37 = 74 bytes


Not quite as short as user23013's CJam solution, but I figured I'd post this anyway, if only to (marginally) increase the diversity of the languages used.

My solution not directly based on any of the existing solutions (and, indeed, I haven't examined them in detail, as I still don't read CJam very well), but they all feature variants of the same basic quine structure ({".~"}.~ in GolfScript, {"_~"}_~ in CJam). That's not really very surprising, since it seems to be one of the most efficient ways to write a quine with an arbitrary payload in these languages.

There are several parts of this code I don't really like, and I suspect it may be possible to golf this further, but I've spent too much time on this as it is.


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